Wednesday, October 23, 2013

NCLEX - Philippines

Great news for Filipino would-be nurses! I read that Pearson VUE, a computer-based testing provider for certification and licensure exams, will be opening up a testing center in Manila. This means that nursing graduates who aspire to work in the USA need not go to Hongkong for the Nclex examinations.
From the website:
The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN®) authorized Pearson VUE to expand testing availability for the NCLEX examination to Manila, the capital of the Philippines. Exam delivery begins at the Pearson VUE-owned and -operated Pearson Professional Center in Manila on August 23, 2007 and exam scheduling opens Friday, July 13, 2007.

I think this is the most logical thing to do, since the US is experiencing a severe shortage of nurses and young Filipinos are out to fill that gap by the thousands per year. The money they save from not having to go to Hong kong can be well spent on their travel expenses leaving for the United States. Makes sense, eh?
You may reach the new test center at:
Pearson Professional Centers
27th Floor, Trident Tower
312 Senator Gil Puyat Avenue,
Makati City,
Manila
Telephone Number: +63 2 887 2198
Directions:
From Buendia LRT Station take a Guadalupe-bound jeepney. Trident Tower is located immediately after the old Shell Maya station, just off the Ayala-Buendia stoplight. Examinees coming from EDSA (Buendia MRT or Guadalupe Tulay) should take an LRT-Taft-bound jeepney and alight just before the Ayala Avenue – Malugay intersection. Those coming in from Ayala Avenue should walk towards Buendia via Geronimo Street (RCBC Plaza and Metrobank GT Towers)
Applicants in the Asia Pacific (Philippines included) who wish to schedule an exam should call +612 9478 5400 (EXT. 3) 8:30 am-6 pm. By dialing this number, you are making a long distance call to Australia. There is no local number available yet. You must also have a credit card ready to pay the scheduling fee.
The first batch of examinees will take the NCLEX on August 23, 2007. I gather that there are still many slots available, but some scheduled their dates in September or later.
For those who are set to take the exams in Hongkong on or after August 23, you may call the number above and have them transfer your venue to the Philippines free of charge.
For examinees coming in from the provinces, there are some hotels in the vicinity you might want to consider:
Makati Palace Hotel (currently 50% off room rates)
5011 P. Burgos corner Caceres Streets
Makati City
Tel: (02) 899-0344
Century Citadel Inn
5007 P. Burgos St. and Kalayaan St.
Bel-Air
Makati City
Tel: (02) 897-2370, (02) 897-2666
Salcedo Suites ($33/night)
LPL Manor Building, 116 L.P. Leviste Street,
Salcedo Village, Makati City
Tel: (02) 893-2654 / (02) 813-6331
Regine’s
339 Gil J Puyat Ave.
Makati City
Tel: (02) 899-9594
El Cielito (kinda far, but not really)
804 Arnaiz Avenue (formerly Pasay Road)
Makati City, Philippines
Tel. No.: (02) 815-8951 to 54
It’s recommended to check in at least a night before and not on the day of exam itself. The NCLEX isn’t easy, you’ll need all the rest you can get! To save on lodging fees, share with someone else who’s taking the test on the same day as you. Good luck!

NCLEX model questions

1. A nurse is administering IV furosemide to a patient admitted with congestive heart failure. After the infusion, which of the following symptoms is NOT expected?
A. Increased urinary output.
B. Decreased edema.
C. Decreased pain.
D. Decreased blood pressure.
2. There are a number of risk factors associated with coronary artery disease. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor?
A. Obesity.
B. Heredity.
C. Gender.
D. Age.
3. Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) is considered for treatment of a patient who arrives in the emergency department following onset of symptoms of myocardial infarction. Which of the following is a contraindication for treatment with t-PA?
A. Worsening chest pain that began earlier in the evening.
B. History of cerebral hemorrhage.
C. History of prior myocardial infarction.
D. Hypertension.
4. Following myocardial infarction, a hospitalized patient is encouraged to practice frequent leg exercises and ambulate in the hallway as directed by his physician. Which of the following choices reflects the purpose of exercise for this patient?
A. Increases fitness and prevents future heart attacks.
B. Prevents bedsores.
C. Prevents DVT (deep vein thrombosis).
D. Prevent constipations.
5. A patient arrives in the emergency department with symptoms of myocardial infarction, progressing to cardiogenic shock. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit with cardiogenic shock?
A. Hypertension.
B. Bradycardia.
C. Bounding pulse.
D. Confusion.
6. A patient with a history of congestive heart failure arrives at the clinic complaining of dyspnea. Which of the following actions is the first the nurse should perform?
A. Ask the patient to lie down on the exam table.
B. Draw blood for chemistry panel and arterial blood gas (ABG).
C. Send the patient for a chest x-ray.
D. Check blood pressure.
7. A clinic patient has recently been prescribed nitroglycerin for treatment of angina. He calls the nurse complaining of frequent headaches. Which of the following responses to the patient is correct?
A. "Stop taking the nitroglycerin and see if the headaches improve."
B. "Go to the emergency department to be checked because nitroglycerin can cause bleeding in the brain."
C. "Headaches are a frequent side effect of nitroglycerine because it causes vasodilation."
D. "The headaches are unlikely to be related to the nitroglycerin, so you should see your doctor for further investigation."
8. A patient received surgery and chemotherapy for colon cancer, completing therapy 3 months previously, and she is now in remission. At a follow-up appointment, she complains of fatigue following activity and difficulty with concentration at her weekly bridge games. Which of the following explanations could account for her symptoms?
A. The symptoms may be the result of anemia caused by chemotherapy.
B. The patient may be immunosuppressed.
C. The patient may be depressed.
D. The patient may be dehydrated.
9. A clinic patient has a hemoglobin concentration of 10.8 g/dL and reports sticking to a strict vegetarian diet. Which of the follow nutritional advice is appropriate?
A. The diet is providing adequate sources of iron and requires no changes.
B. The patient should add meat to her diet; a vegetarian diet is not advised.
C. The patient should use iron cookware to prepare foods, such as dark green, leafy vegetables and legumes, which are high in iron.
D. A cup of coffee or tea should be added to every meal.
10. A hospitalized patient is receiving packed red blood cells (PRBCs) for treatment of severe anemia. Which of the following is the most accurate statement?
A. Transfusion reaction is most likely immediately after the infusion is completed.
B. PRBCs are best infused slowly through a 20g. IV catheter.
C. PRBCs should be flushed with a 5% dextrose solution.
D. A nurse should remain in the room during the first 15 minutes of infusion.
11. A patient who has received chemotherapy for cancer treatment is given an injection of Epoetin. Which of the following should reflect the findings in a complete blood count (CBC) drawn several days later?
A. An increase in neutrophil count.
B. An increase in hematocrit.
C. An increase in platelet count.
D. An increase in serum iron.
12. A patient is admitted to the hospital with suspected polycythemia vera. Which of the following symptoms is consistent with the diagnosis?
A. Weight loss.
B. Increased clotting time.
C. Hypertension.
D. Headaches.
13. A nurse is caring for a patient with a platelet count of 20,000/microliter. Which of the following is an important intervention?
A. Observe for evidence of spontaneous bleeding.
B. Limit visitors to family only.
C. Give aspirin in case of headaches.
D. Impose immune precautions.
14. A nurse in the emergency department assesses a patient who has been taking long-term corticosteroids to treat renal disease. Which of the following is a typical side effect of corticosteroid treatment? Note: More than one answer may be correct.
A. Hypertension.
B. Cushingoid features.
C. Hyponatremia.
D. Low serum albumin.
15. A nurse is caring for patients in the oncology unit. Which of the following is the most important nursing action when caring for a neutropenic patient?
A. Change the disposable mask immediately after use.
B. Change gloves immediately after use.
C. Minimize patient contact.
D. Minimize conversation with the patient.
16. A patient is undergoing the induction stage of treatment for leukemia. The nurse teaches family members about infectious precautions. Which of the following statements by family members indicates that the family needs more education?
A. We will bring in books and magazines for entertainment.
B. We will bring in personal care items for comfort.
C. We will bring in fresh flowers to brighten the room.
D. We will bring in family pictures and get well cards.
17. A nurse is caring for a patient with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Which of the following is the most likely age range of the patient?
A. 3-10 years.
B. 25-35 years.
C. 45-55 years.
D. over 60 years.
18. A patient is admitted to the oncology unit for diagnosis of suspected Hodgkin's disease. Which of the following symptoms is typical of Hodgkin's disease?
A. Painful cervical lymph nodes.
B. Night sweats and fatigue.
C. Nausea and vomiting.
D. Weight gain.
19. The Hodgkin's disease patient described in the question above undergoes a lymph node biopsy for definitive diagnosis. If the diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease were correct, which of the following cells would the pathologist expect to find?
A. Reed-Sternberg cells.
B. Lymphoblastic cells.
C. Gaucher's cells.
D. Rieder's cells
20. A patient is about to undergo bone marrow aspiration and biopsy and expresses fear and anxiety about the procedure. Which of the following is the most effective nursing response?
A. Warn the patient to stay very still because the smallest movement will increase her pain.
B. Encourage the family to stay in the room for the procedure.
C. Stay with the patient and focus on slow, deep breathing for relaxation.
D. Delay the procedure to allow the patient to deal with her feelings.
Answer Key
1. Answer: C
Furosemide, a loop diuretic, does not alter pain. Furosemide acts on the kidneys to increase urinary output. Fluid may move from the periphery, decreasing edema. Fluid load is reduced, lowering blood pressure.
2. Answer: A
Obesity is an important risk factor for coronary artery disease that can be modified by improved diet and weight loss. Family history of coronary artery disease, male gender, and advancing age increase risk but cannot be modified.
3. Answer: B
A history of cerebral hemorrhage is a contraindication to tPA because it may increase the risk of bleeding. TPA acts by dissolving the clot blocking the coronary artery and works best when administered within 6 hours of onset of symptoms. Prior MI is not a contraindication to tPA. Patients receiving tPA should be observed for changes in blood pressure, as tPA may cause hypotension.
4. Answer: C
Exercise is important for all hospitalized patients to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Muscular contraction promotes venous return and prevents hemostasis in the lower extremities. This exercise is not sufficiently vigorous to increase physical fitness, nor is it intended to prevent bedsores or constipation.
5. Answer: D
Cardiogenic shock severely impairs the pumping function of the heart muscle, causing diminished blood flow to the organs of the body. This results in diminished brain function and confusion, as well as hypotension, tachycardia, and weak pulse. Cardiogenic shock is a serious complication of myocardial infarction with a high mortality rate.
6. Answer: D
A patient with congestive heart failure and dyspnea may have pulmonary edema, which can cause severe hypertension. Therefore, taking the patient's blood pressure should be the first action. Lying flat on the exam table would likely worsen the dyspnea, and the patient may not tolerate it. Blood draws for chemistry and ABG will be required, but not prior to the blood pressure assessment.
7. Answer: C
Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator and often produces unwanted effects such as headache, dizziness, and hypotension. Patients should be counseled, and the dose titrated, to minimize these effects. In spite of the side effects, nitroglycerine is effective at reducing myocardial oxygen consumption and increasing blood flow. The patient should not stop the medication. Nitroglycerine does not cause bleeding in the brain.
8. Answer: A
Three months after surgery and chemotherapy the patient is likely to be feeling the after-effects, which often includes anemia because of bone-marrow suppression. There is no evidence that the patient is immunosuppressed, and fatigue is not a typical symptom of immunosuppression. The information given does not indicate that depression or dehydration is a cause of her symptoms.
9. Answer: 3
Normal hemoglobin values range from 11.5-15.0. This vegetarian patient is mildly anemic. When food is prepared in iron cookware its iron content is increased. In addition, dark green leafy vegetables, such as spinach and kale, and legumes are high in iron. Mild anemia does not require that animal sources of iron be added to the diet. Many non-animal sources are available. Coffee and tea increase gastrointestinal activity and inhibit absorption of iron.
10. Answer: D
Transfusion reaction is most likely during the first 15 minutes of infusion, and a nurse should be present during this period. PRBCs should be infused through a 19g or larger IV catheter to avoid slow flow, which can cause clotting. PRBCs must be flushed with 0.45% normal saline solution. Other intravenous solutions will hemolyze the cells.
11. Answer: B
Epoetin is a form of erythropoietin, which stimulates the production of red blood cells, causing an increase in hematocrit. Epoetin is given to patients who are anemic, often as a result of chemotherapy treatment. Epoetin has no effect on neutrophils, platelets, or serum iron.
12. Answer: B, C, and D
Polycythemia vera is a condition in which the bone marrow produces too many red blood cells. This causes an increase in hematocrit and viscosity of the blood. Patients can experience headaches, dizziness, and visual disturbances. Cardiovascular effects include increased blood pressure and delayed clotting time. Weight loss is not a manifestation of polycythemia vera.
13. Answer: A
Platelet counts under 30,000/microliter may cause spontaneous petechiae and bruising, particularly in the extremities. When the count falls below 15,000, spontaneous bleeding into the brain and internal organs may occur. Headaches may be a sign and should be watched for. Aspirin disables platelets and should never be used in the presence of thrombocytopenia. Thrombocytopenia does not compromise immunity, and there is no reason to limit visitors as long as any physical trauma is prevented.
14. Answer: A, B, and D
Side effects of corticosteroids include weight gain, fluid retention with hypertension, Cushingoid features, a low serum albumin, and suppressed inflammatory response. Patients are encouraged to eat a diet high in protein, vitamins, and minerals and low in sodium. Corticosteroids cause hypernatremia, not hyponatremia.
15. Answer: B
The neutropenic patient is at risk of infection. Changing gloves immediately after use protects patients from contamination with organisms picked up on hospital surfaces. This contamination can have serious consequences for an immunocompromised patient. Changing the respiratory mask is desirable, but not nearly as urgent as changing gloves. Minimizing contact and conversation are not necessary and may cause nursing staff to miss changes in the patient's symptoms or condition.
16. Answer: C
During induction chemotherapy, the leukemia patient is severely immunocompromised and at risk of serious infection. Fresh flowers, fruit, and plants can carry microbes and should be avoided. Books, pictures, and other personal items can be cleaned with antimicrobials before being brought into the room to minimize the risk of contamination.
17. Answer: A
The peak incidence of ALL is at 4 years (range 3-10). It is uncommon after the mid-teen years. The peak incidence of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is 45-55 years. The peak incidence of acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) occurs at 60 years. Two-thirds of cases of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) occur after 60 years.
18. Answer: B
Symptoms of Hodgkin's disease include night sweats, fatigue, weakness, and tachycardia. The disease is characterized by painless, enlarged cervical lymph nodes. Weight loss occurs early in the disease. Nausea and vomiting are not typically symptoms of Hodgkin's disease.
19. Answer: A
A definitive diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease is made if Reed-Sternberg cells are found on pathologic examination of the excised lymph node. Lymphoblasts are immature cells found in the bone marrow of patients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Gaucher's cells are large storage cells found in patients with Gaucher's disease. Rieder's cells are myeloblasts found in patients with acute myelogenous leukemia.
20. Answer: C
Slow, deep breathing is the most effective method of reducing anxiety and stress. It reduces the level of carbon dioxide in the brain to increase calm and relaxation. Warning the patient to remain still will likely increase her anxiety. Encouraging family members to stay with the patient may make her worry about their anxiety as well as her own. Delaying the procedure is unlikely to allay her fears.

Sample questions NCLEX

1. A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilm's tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage?
  1. The tumor is less than 3 cm. in size and requires no chemotherapy.
  2. The tumor did not extend beyond the kidney and was completely resected.
  3. The tumor extended beyond the kidney but was completely resected.
  4. The tumor has spread into the abdominal cavity and cannot be resected.
2. A teen patient is admitted to the hospital by his physician who suspects a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings is consistent with this diagnosis? Note: More than one answer may be correct.
  1. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
  2. Urine output of 350 ml in 24 hours.
  3. Brown ("tea-colored") urine.
  4. Generalized edema.
3. Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis?
  1. A congenital condition leading to renal dysfunction.
  2. Prior infection with group A Streptococcus within the past 10-14 days.
  3. Viral infection of the glomeruli.
  4. Nephrotic syndrome.
4. An infant with hydrocele is seen in the clinic for a follow-up visit at 1 month of age. The scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend?
  1. Massaging the groin area twice a day until the fluid is gone.
  2. Referral to a surgeon for repair.
  3. No treatment is necessary; the fluid is reabsorbing normally.
  4. Keeping the infant in a flat, supine position until the fluid is gone.
5. A nurse is caring for a patient with peripheral vascular disease (PVD). The patient complains of burning and tingling of the hands and feet and cannot tolerate touch of any kind. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these symptoms?
  1. Inadequate tissue perfusion leading to nerve damage.
  2. Fluid overload leading to compression of nerve tissue.
  3. Sensation distortion due to psychiatric disturbance.
  4. Inflammation of the skin on the hands and feet.
6. A patient in the cardiac unit is concerned about the risk factors associated with atherosclerosis. Which of the following are hereditary risk factors for developing atherosclerosis?
  1. Family history of heart disease.
  2. Overweight.
  3. Smoking.
  4. Age.
7. Claudication is a well-known effect of peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following facts about claudication is correct?
  1. It results when oxygen demand is greater than oxygen supply.
  2. It is characterized by pain that often occurs duing rest.
  3. It is a result of tissue hypoxia.
  4. It is characterized by cramping and weakness.
8. A nurse is providing discharge information to a patient with peripheral vascular disease. Which of the following information should be included in instructions?
  1. Walk barefoot whenever possible.
  2. Use a heating pad to keep feet warm.
  3. Avoid crossing the legs.
  4. Use antibacterial ointment to treat skin lesions at risk of infection.
9. A patient who has been diagnosed with vasospastic disorder (Raynaud's disease) complains of cold and stiffness in the fingers. Which of the following descriptions is most likely to fit the patient?
  1. An adolescent male.
  2. An elderly woman.
  3. A young woman.
  4. An elderly man.
10. A 23 year old patient in the 27th week of pregnancy has been hospitalized on complete bed rest for 6 days. She experiences sudden shortness of breath, accompanied by chest pain. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
  1. Myocardial infarction due to a history of atherosclerosis.
  2. Pulmonary embolism due to deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
  3. Anxiety attack due to worries about her baby's health.
  4. Congestive heart failure due to fluid overload.
11. Thrombolytic therapy is frequently used in the treatment of suspected stroke. Which of the following is a significant complication associated with thrombolytic therapy?
  1. Air embolus.
  2. Cerebral hemorrhage.
  3. Expansion of the clot.
  4. Resolution of the clot.
12. An infant is brought to the clinic by his mother, who has noticed that he holds his head in an unusual position and always faces to one side. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
  1. Torticollis, with shortening of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
  2. Craniosynostosis, with premature closure of the cranial sutures.
  3. Plagiocephaly, with flattening of one side of the head.
  4. Hydrocephalus, with increased head size.
13. An adolescent brings a physician's note to school stating that he is not to participate in sports due to a diagnosis of Osgood-Schlatter disease. Which of the following statements about the disease is correct?
  1. The condition was caused by the student's competitive swimming schedule.
  2. The student will most likely require surgical intervention.
  3. The student experiences pain in the inferior aspect of the knee.
  4. The student is trying to avoid participation in physical education.
14. The clinic nurse asks a 13-year-old female to bend forward at the waist with arms hanging freely. Which of the following assessments is the nurse most likely conducting?
  1. Spinal flexibility.
  2. Leg length disparity.
  3. Hypostatic blood pressure.
  4. Scoliosis.
15. A clinic nurse interviews a parent who is suspected of abusing her child. Which of the following characteristics is the nurse LEAST likely to find in an abusing parent?
  1. Low self-esteem.
  2. Unemployment.
  3. Self-blame for the injury to the child.
  4. Single status.
16. A nurse is assigned to the pediatric rheumatology clinic and is assessing a child who has just been diagnosed with juvenile idiopathic arthritis. Which of the following statements about the disease is most accurate?
  1. The child has a poor chance of recovery without joint deformity.
  2. Most children progress to adult rheumatoid arthritis.
  3. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the first choice in treatment.
  4. Physical activity should be minimized.
17. A child is admitted to the hospital several days after stepping on a sharp object that punctured her athletic shoe and entered the flesh of her foot. The physician is concerned about osteomyelitis and has ordered parenteral antibiotics. Which of the following actions is done immediately before the antibiotic is started?
  1. The admission orders are written.
  2. A blood culture is drawn.
  3. A complete blood count with differential is drawn.
  4. The parents arrive.
18. A two-year-old child has sustained an injury to the leg and refuses to walk. The nurse in the emergency department documents swelling of the lower affected leg. Which of the following does the nurse suspect is the cause of the child's symptoms?
  1. Possible fracture of the tibia.
  2. Bruising of the gastrocnemius muscle.
  3. Possible fracture of the radius.
  4. No anatomic injury, the child wants his mother to carry him.
19. A toddler has recently been diagnosed with cerebral palsy. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the parents? Note: More than one answer may be correct.
  1. Regular developmental screening is important to avoid secondary developmental delays.
  2. Cerebral palsy is caused by injury to the upper motor neurons and results in motor dysfunction, as well as possible ocular and speech difficulties.
  3. Developmental milestones may be slightly delayed but usually will require no additional intervention.
  4. Parent support groups are helpful for sharing strategies and managing health care issues.
20. A child has recently been diagnosed with Duchenne's muscular dystrophy. The parents are receiving genetic counseling prior to planning another pregnancy. Which of the following statements includes the most accurate information?
  1. Duchenne's is an X-linked recessive disorder, so daughters have a 50% chance of being carriers and sons a 50% chance of developing the disease.
  2. Duchenne's is an X-linked recessive disorder, so both daughters and sons have a 50% chance of developing the disease.
  3. Each child has a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
  4. Sons only have a 1 in 4 (25%) chance of developing the disorder.
Answer Key
1. C
The staging of Wilm's tumor is confirmed at surgery as follows: Stage I, the tumor is limited to the kidney and completely resected; stage II, the tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected; stage III, residual nonhematogenous tumor is confined to the abdomen; stage IV, hematogenous metastasis has occurred with spread beyond the abdomen; and stage V, bilateral renal involvement is present at diagnosis.
2. A, B, and C
Acute glomerulonephritis is characterized by high urine specific gravity related to oliguria as well as dark "tea colored" urine caused by large amounts of red blood cells. There is periorbital edema, but generalized edema is seen in nephrotic syndrome, not acute glomerulonephritis.
3. B
Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus. Glomerular inflammation occurs about 10-14 days after the infection, resulting in scant, dark urine and retention of body fluid. Periorbital edema and hypertension are common signs at diagnosis.
4. C
A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. In most cases the fluid reabsorbs within the first few months of life and no treatment is necessary. Massaging the area or placing the infant in a supine position would have no effect. Surgery is not indicated.
5. A
Patients with peripheral vascular disease often sustain nerve damage as a result of inadequate tissue perfusion. Fluid overload is not characteristic of PVD. There is nothing to indicate psychiatric disturbance in the patient. Skin changes in PVD are secondary to decreased tissue perfusion rather than primary inflammation.
6. A
Family history of heart disease is an inherited risk factor that is not subject to life style change. Having a first degree relative with heart disease has been shown to significantly increase risk. Overweight and smoking are risk factors that are subject to life style change and can reduce risk significantly. Advancing age increases risk of atherosclerosis but is not a hereditary factor.
7. A, C, and D
Claudication describes the pain experienced by a patient with peripheral vascular disease when oxygen demand in the leg muscles exceeds the oxygen supply. This most often occurs during activity when demand increases in muscle tissue. The tissue becomes hypoxic, causing cramping, weakness, and discomfort.
8. C
Patients with peripheral vascular disease should avoid crossing the legs because this can impede blood flow. Walking barefoot is not advised, as foot protection is important to avoid trauma that may lead to serious infection. Heating pads can cause injury, which can also increase the risk of infection. Skin lesions at risk for infection should be examined and treated by a physician.
9. C
Raynaud's disease is most common in young women and is frequently associated with rheumatologic disorders, such as lupus and rheumatoid arthritis.
10. B
In a hospitalized patient on prolonged bed rest, he most likely cause of sudden onset shortness of breath and chest pain is pulmonary embolism. Pregnancy and prolonged inactivity both increase the risk of clot formation in the deep veins of the legs. These clots can then break loose and travel to the lungs. Myocardial infarction and atherosclerosis are unlikely in a 27-year-old woman, as is congestive heart failure due to fluid overload. There is no reason to suspect an anxiety disorder in this patient. Though anxiety is a possible cause of her symptoms, the seriousness of pulmonary embolism demands that it be considered first.
11. B
Cerebral hemorrhage is a significant risk when treating a stroke victim with thrombolytic therapy intended to dissolve a suspected clot. Success of the treatment demands that it be instituted as soon as possible, often before the cause of stroke has been determined. Air embolus is not a concern. Thrombolytic therapy does not lead to expansion of the clot, but to resolution, which is the intended effect.
12. A
In torticollis, the sternocleidomastoid muscle is contracted, limiting range of motion of the neck and causing the chin to point to the opposing side. In craniosynostosis one of the cranial sutures, often the sagittal, closes prematurely, causing the head to grow in an abnormal shape. Plagiocephaly refers to the flattening of one side of the head, caused by the infant being placed supine in the same position over time. Hydrocephalus is caused by a build-up of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain resulting in large head size.
13. C
Osgood-Schlatter disease occurs in adolescents in rapid growth phase when the infrapatellar ligament of the quadriceps muscle pulls on the tibial tubercle, causing pain and swelling in the inferior aspect of the knee. Osgood-Schlatter disease is commonly caused by activities that require repeated use of the quadriceps, including track and soccer. Swimming is not a likely cause. The condition is usually self-limited, responding to ice, rest, and analgesics. Continued participation will worsen the condition and the symptoms.
14. D
A check for scoliosis, a lateral deviation of the spine, is an important part of the routine adolescent exam. It is assessed by having the teen bend at the waist with arms dangling, while observing for lateral curvature and uneven rib level. Scoliosis is more common in female adolescents. Choices A, B, and C are not part of the routine adolescent exam.
15. C
The profile of a parent at risk of abusive behavior includes a tendency to blame the child or others for the injury sustained. These parents also have a high incidence of low self-esteem, unemployment, unstable financial situation, and single status.
16. 3
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are important first line treatment for juvenile idiopathic arthritis (formerly known as juvenile rheumatoid arthritis). NSAIDs require 3-4 weeks for the therapeutic anti-inflammatory effects to be realized. Half of children with the disorder recover without joint deformity, and about a third will continue with symptoms into adulthood. Physical activity is an integral part of therapy.
17. B
Antibiotics must be started after the blood culture is drawn, as they may interfere with the identification of the causative organism. The blood count will reveal the presence of infection but does not help identify an organism or guide antibiotic treatment. Parental presence is important for the adjustment of the child but not for the administration of medication.
18. A
The child's refusal to walk, combined with swelling of the limb is suspicious for fracture. Toddlers will often continue to walk on a muscle that is bruised or strained. The radius is found in the lower arm and is not relevant to this question. Toddlers rarely feign injury to be carried, and swelling indicates a physical injury.
19. A, B, D
Delayed developmental milestones are characteristic of cerebral palsy, so regular screening and intervention is essential. Because of injury to upper motor neurons, children may have ocular and speech difficulties. Parent support groups help families to share and cope. Physical therapy and other interventions can minimize the extent of the delay in developmental milestones.
20. A
The recessive Duchenne's gene is located on one of the two X chromosomes of a female carrier. If her son receives the X bearing the gene he will be affected. Thus, there is a 50% chance of a son being affected. Daughters are not affected, but 50% are carriers because they inherit one copy of the defective gene from the mother. The other X chromosome comes from the father, who cannot be a carrier.

NCLEX - RN Sample questions

1. A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient's lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings?
A. Elevated serum calcium.
B. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH).
C. Elevated serum vitamin D.
D. Low urine calcium.
2. A patient with Addison's disease asks a nurse for nutrition and diet advice. Which of the following diet modifications is NOT recommended?
A. A diet high in grains.
B. A diet with adequate caloric intake.
C. A high protein diet.
D. A restricted sodium diet.
3. A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is in the second post-operative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms?
A. Anesthesia reaction.
B. Hyperglycemia.
C. Hypoglycemia.
D. Diabetic ketoacidosis.
4. A nurse assigned to the emergency department evaluates a patient who underwent fiberoptic colonoscopy 18 hours previously. The patient reports increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills. Which of the following conditions poses the most immediate concern?
A. Bowel perforation.
B. Viral gastroenteritis.
C. Colon cancer.
D. Diverticulitis.
5. A patient is admitted to the same day surgery unit for liver biopsy. Which of the following laboratory tests assesses coagulation?
A. Partial thromboplastin time.
B. Prothrombin time.
C. Platelet count.
D. Hemoglobin
6. A nurse is assessing a clinic patient with a diagnosis of hepatitis A. Which of the following is the most likely route of transmission?
A. Sexual contact with an infected partner.
B. Contaminated food.
C. Blood transfusion.
D. Illegal drug use.
7. A leukemia patient has a relative who wants to donate blood for transfusion. Which of the following donor medical conditions would prevent this?
A. A history of hepatitis C five years previously.
B. Cholecystitis requiring cholecystectomy one year previously.
C. Asymptomatic diverticulosis.
D. Crohn's disease in remission.
8. A physician has diagnosed acute gastritis in a clinic patient. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated for this patient?
A. Naproxen sodium (Naprosyn).
B. Calcium carbonate.
C. Clarithromycin (Biaxin).
D. Furosemide (Lasix).
9. The nurse is conducting nutrition counseling for a patient with cholecystitis. Which of the following information is important to communicate?
A. The patient must maintain a low calorie diet.
B. The patient must maintain a high protein/low carbohydrate diet.
C. The patient should limit sweets and sugary drinks.
D. The patient should limit fatty foods.
10. A patient admitted to the hospital with myocardial infarction develops severe pulmonary edema. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect the patient to exhibit?
A. Slow, deep respirations.
B. Stridor.
C. Bradycardia.
D. Air hunger.
11. A nurse caring for several patients on the cardiac unit is told that one is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator. Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure?
A. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage.
B. A post-operative coronary bypass patient, recovering on schedule.
C. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes.
D. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue.
12. A patient is scheduled for a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan for suspected lung cancer. Which of the following is a contraindication to the study for this patient?
A. The patient is allergic to shellfish.
B. The patient has a pacemaker.
C. The patient suffers from claustrophobia.
D. The patient takes anti-psychotic medication.
13. A nurse calls a physician with the concern that a patient has developed a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following symptoms has the nurse most likely observed?
A. The patient is somnolent with decreased response to the family.
B. The patient suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath.
C. The patient has developed a wet cough and the nurse hears crackles on auscultation of the lungs.
D. The patient has a fever, chills, and loss of appetite.
14. A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect?
A. The patient will be admitted to the medicine unit for observation and medication.
B. The patient will be admitted to the day surgery unit for sclerotherapy.
C. The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit and resection will be scheduled.
D. The patient will be discharged home to follow-up with his cardiologist in 24 hours.
15. A patient with leukemia is receiving chemotherapy that is known to depress bone marrow. A CBC (complete blood count) reveals a platelet count of 25,000/microliter. Which of the following actions related specifically to the platelet count should be included on the nursing care plan?
A. Monitor for fever every 4 hours.
B. Require visitors to wear respiratory masks and protective clothing.
C. Consider transfusion of packed red blood cells.
D. Check for signs of bleeding, including examination of urine and stool for blood.
16. A nurse in the emergency department is observing a 4-year-old child for signs of increased intracranial pressure after a fall from a bicycle, resulting in head trauma. Which of the following signs or symptoms would be cause for concern?
A. Bulging anterior fontanel.
B. Repeated vomiting.
C. Signs of sleepiness at 10 PM.
D. Inability to read short words from a distance of 18 inches.
17. A nonimmunized child appears at the clinic with a visible rash. Which of the following observations indicates the child may have rubeola (measles)?
A. Small blue-white spots are visible on the oral mucosa.
B. The rash begins on the trunk and spreads outward.
C. There is low-grade fever.
D. The lesions have a "tear drop on a rose petal" appearance.
18. A child is seen in the emergency department for scarlet fever. Which of the following descriptions of scarlet fever is NOT correct?
A. Scarlet fever is caused by infection with group A Streptococcus bacteria.
B. "Strawberry tongue" is a characteristic sign.
C. Petechiae occur on the soft palate.
D. The pharynx is red and swollen.
19. A child weighing 30 kg arrives at the clinic with diffuse itching as the result of an allergic reaction to an insect bite. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) 25 mg 3 times a day is prescribed. The correct pediatric dose is 5 mg/kg/day. Which of the following best describes the prescribed drug dose?
A. It is the correct dose.
B. The dose is too low.
C. The dose is too high.
D. The dose should be increased or decreased, depending on the symptoms.
20. The mother of a 2-month-old infant brings the child to the clinic for a well baby check. She is concerned because she feels only one testis in the scrotal sac. Which of the following statements about the undescended testis is the most accurate?
A. Normally, the testes are descended by birth.
B. The infant will likely require surgical intervention.
C. The infant probably has with only one testis.
D. Normally, the testes descend by one year of age.
Answer Key
1. Answer: A
The parathyroid glands regulate the calcium level in the blood. In hyperparathyroidism, the serum calcium level will be elevated. Parathyroid hormone levels may be high or normal but not low. The body will lower the level of vitamin D in an attempt to lower calcium. Urine calcium may be elevated, with calcium spilling over from elevated serum levels. This may cause renal stones.
2. Answer: D
A patient with Addison's disease requires normal dietary sodium to prevent excess fluid loss. Adequate caloric intake is recommended with a diet high in protein and complex carbohydrates, including grains.
3. Answer: C
A post-operative diabetic patient who is unable to eat is likely to be suffering from hypoglycemia. Confusion and shakiness are common symptoms. An anesthesia reaction would not occur on the second post-operative day. Hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis do not cause confusion and shakiness.
4. Answer: A
Bowel perforation is the most serious complication of fiberoptic colonoscopy. Important signs include progressive abdominal pain, fever, chills, and tachycardia, which indicate advancing peritonitis. Viral gastroenteritis and colon cancer do not cause these symptoms. Diverticulitis may cause pain, fever, and chills, but is far less serious than perforation and peritonitis.
5. Answer: A, B, and C
Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and platelet count are all included in coagulation studies. The hemoglobin level, though important information prior to an invasive procedure like liver biopsy, does not assess coagulation.
6. Answer: B
Hepatitis A is the only type that is transmitted by the fecal-oral route through contaminated food. Hepatitis B, C, and D are transmitted through infected bodily fluids.
7. Answer: A
Hepatitis C is a viral infection transmitted through bodily fluids, such as blood, causing inflammation of the liver. Patients with hepatitis C may not donate blood for transfusion due to the high risk of infection in the recipient. Cholecystitis (gall bladder disease), diverticulosis, and history of Crohn's disease do not preclude blood donation.
8. Answer: A
Naproxen sodium is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug that can cause inflammation of the upper GI tract. For this reason, it is contraindicated in a patient with gastritis. Calcium carbonate is used as an antacid for the relief of indigestion and is not contraindicated. Clarithromycin is an antibacterial often used for the treatment of Helicobacter pylori in gastritis. Furosemide is a loop diuretic and is contraindicated in a patient with gastritis.
9. Answer: D
Cholecystitis, inflammation of the gallbladder, is most commonly caused by the presence of gallstones, which may block bile (necessary for fat absorption) from entering the intestines. Patients should decrease dietary fat by limiting foods like fatty meats, fried foods, and creamy desserts to avoid irritation of the gallbladder.
10. Answer: D
Patients with pulmonary edema experience air hunger, anxiety, and agitation. Respiration is fast and shallow and heart rate increases. Stridor is noisy breathing caused by laryngeal swelling or spasm and is not associated with pulmonary edema.
11. Answer: C
An automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator delivers an electric shock to the heart to terminate episodes of ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation. This is necessary in a patient with significant ventricular symptoms, such as tachycardia resulting in syncope. A patient with myocardial infarction that resolved with no permanent cardiac damage would not be a candidate. A patient recovering well from coronary bypass would not need the device. Atrial tachycardia is less serious and is treated conservatively with medication and cardioversion as a last resort.
12. Answer: B
The implanted pacemaker will interfere with the magnetic fields of the MRI scanner and may be deactivated by them. Shellfish/iodine allergy is not a contraindication because the contrast used in MRI scanning is not iodine-based. Open MRI scanners and anti-anxiety medications are available for patients with claustrophobia. Psychiatric medication is not a contraindication to MRI scanning.
13. Answer: B
Typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include chest pain, shortness of breath, and severe anxiety. The physician should be notified immediately. A patient with pulmonary embolism will not be sleepy or have a cough with crackles on exam. A patient with fever, chills and loss of appetite may be developing pneumonia.
14. Answer: C
A rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm is at significant risk of rupture and should be resected as soon as possible. No other appropriate treatment options currently exist.
15. Answer: D
A platelet count of 25,000/microliter is severely thrombocytopenic and should prompt the initiation of bleeding precautions, including monitoring urine and stool for evidence of bleeding. Monitoring for fever and requiring protective clothing are indicated to prevent infection if white blood cells are decreased. Transfusion of red cells is indicated for severe anemia.
16. Answer: B
Increased pressure caused by bleeding or swelling within the skull can damage delicate brain tissue and may become life threatening. Repeated vomiting can be an early sign of pressure as the vomit center within the medulla is stimulated. The anterior fontanel is closed in a 4-year-old child. Evidence of sleepiness at 10 PM is normal for a four year old. The average 4-year-old child cannot read yet, so this too is normal.
17. Answer: A
Koplik's spots are small blue-white spots visible on the oral mucosa and are characteristic of measles infection. The body rash typically begins on the face and travels downward. High fever is often present. "Tear drop on a rose petal" refers to the lesions found in varicella (chicken pox).
18. Answer: C
Petechiae on the soft palate are characteristic of rubella infection. Choices A, B, and D are characteristic of scarlet fever, a result of group A Streptococcus infection.
19. Answer: B
This child weighs 30 kg, and the pediatric dose of diphenhydramine is 5 mg/kg/day (5 X 30 = 150/day). Therefore, the correct dose is 150 mg/day. Divided into 3 doses per day, the child should receive 50 mg 3 times a day rather than 25 mg 3 times a day. Dosage should not be titrated based on symptoms without consulting a physician.
20. Answer: D
Normally, the testes descend by one year of age. In young infants, it is common for the testes to retract into the inguinal canal when the environment is cold or the cremasteric reflex is stimulated. Exam should be done in a warm room with warm hands. It is most likely that both testes are present and will descend by a year. If not, a full assessment will determine the appropriate treatment.

NCLEX Sample questions

1. A mother complains to the clinic nurse that her 2 ½-year-old son is not yet toilet trained. She is particularly concerned that, although he reliably uses the potty seat for bowel movements, he isn't able to hold his urine for long periods. Which of the following statements by the nurse is correct?
A. The child should have been trained by age 2 and may have a psychological problem that is responsible for his "accidents."
B. Bladder control is usually achieved before bowel control, and the child should be required to sit on the potty seat until he passes urine.
C. Bowel control is usually achieved before bladder control, and the average age for completion of toilet training varies widely from 24 to 36 months.
D. The child should be told "no" each time he wets so that he learns the behavior is unacceptable.
2. The mother of a 14-month-old child reports to the nurse that her child will not fall asleep at night without a bottle of milk in the crib and often wakes during the night asking for another. Which of the following instructions by the nurse is correct?
A. Allow the child to have the bottle at bedtime, but withhold the one later in the night.
B. Put juice in the bottle instead of milk.
C. Give only a bottle of water at bedtime.
D. Do not allow bottles in the crib.
3. Which of the following actions is NOT appropriate in the care of a 2-month-old infant?
A. Place the infant on her back for naps and bedtime.
B. Allow the infant to cry for 5 minutes before responding if she wakes during the night as she may fall back asleep.
C. Talk to the infant frequently and make eye contact to encourage language development.
D. Wait until at least 4 months to add infant cereals and strained fruits to the diet.
4. An older patient asks a nurse to recommend strategies to prevent constipation. Which of the following suggestions would be helpful? Note: More than one answer may be correct.
A. Get moderate exercise for at least 30 minutes each day.
B. Drink 6-8 glasses of water each day.
C. Eat a diet high in fiber.
D. Take a mild laxative if you don't have a bowel movement every day.
5. A child is admitted to the hospital with suspected rheumatic fever. Which of the following observations is NOT confirming of the diagnosis?
A. A reddened rash visible over the trunk and extremities.
B. A history of sore throat that was self-limited in the past month.
C. A negative antistreptolysin O titer.
D. An unexplained fever.
6. An infant with congestive heart failure is receiving diuretic therapy at home. Which of the following symptoms would indicate that the dosage may need to be increased?
A. Sudden weight gain.
B. Decreased blood pressure.
C. Slow, shallow breathing.
D. Bradycardia.
7. A patient taking Dilantin (phenytoin) for a seizure disorder is experiencing breakthrough seizures. A blood sample is taken to determine the serum drug level. Which of the following would indicate a sub-therapeutic level?
A. 15 mcg/mL.
B. 4 mcg/mL.
C. 10 mcg/dL.
D. 5 mcg/dL.
8. A patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of back pain. He reports taking at least 3 acetaminophen tablets every three hours for the past week without relief. Which of the following symptoms suggests acetaminophen toxicity?
A. Tinnitus.
B. Diarrhea.
C. Hypertension.
D. Hepatic damage.
9. A nurse is caring for a cancer patient receiving subcutaneous morphine sulfate for pain. Which of the following nursing actions is most important in the care of this patient?
A. Monitor urine output.
B. Monitor respiratory rate.
C. Monitor heart rate.
D. Monitor temperature.
10. A patient arrives at the emergency department with severe lower leg pain after a fall in a touch football game. Following routine triage, which of the following is the appropriate next step in assessment and treatment?
A. Apply heat to the painful area.
B. Apply an elastic bandage to the leg.
C. X-ray the leg.
D. Give pain medication.
11. A nurse is evaluating a post-operative patient and notes a moderate amount of serous drainage on the dressing 24 hours after surgery. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action?
A. Notify the surgeon about evidence of infection immediately.
B. Leave the dressing intact to avoid disturbing the wound site.
C. Remove the dressing and leave the wound site open to air.
D. Change the dressing and document the clean appearance of the wound site.
12. A patient returns to the emergency department less than 24 hours after having a fiberglass cast applied for a fractured right radius. Which of the following patient complaints would cause the nurse to be concerned about impaired perfusion to the limb?
A. Severe itching under the cast.
B. Severe pain in the right shoulder.
C. Severe pain in the right lower arm.
D. Increased warmth in the fingers.
13. An older patient with osteoarthritis is preparing for discharge. Which of the following information is correct.
A. Increased physical activity and daily exercise will help decrease discomfort associated with the condition.
B. Joint pain will diminish after a full night of rest.
C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications should be taken on an empty stomach.
D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is a more effective anti-inflammatory than ibuprofen (Motrin).
14. Which patient should NOT be prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis?
A. A female patient being treated for high blood pressure with an ACE inhibitor.
B. A patient who is allergic to iodine/shellfish.
C. A patient on a calorie restricted diet.
D. A patient on bed rest who must maintain a supine position.
15. Which of the following strategies is NOT effective for prevention of Lyme disease?
A. Insect repellant on the skin and clothes when in a Lyme endemic area.
B. Long sleeved shirts and long pants.
C. Prophylactic antibiotic therapy prior to anticipated exposure to ticks.
D. Careful examination of skin and hair for ticks following anticipated exposure.
16. A nurse is counseling patients at a health clinic on the importance of immunizations. Which of the following information is the most accurate regarding immunizations?
A. All infectious diseases can be prevented with proper immunization.
B. Immunizations provide natural immunity from disease.
C. Immunizations are risk-free and should be universally administered.
D. Immunization provides acquired immunity from some specific diseases.
17. A patient is brought to the emergency department after a bee sting. The family reports a history of severe allergic reaction, and the patient appears to have some oral swelling. Which of the following is the most urgent nursing action?
A. Consult a physician.
B. Maintain a patent airway.
C. Administer epinephrine subcutaneously.
D. Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) orally.
18. A mother calls the clinic to report that her son has recently started medication to treat attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). The mother fears her son is experiencing side effects of the medicine. Which of the following side effects are typically related to medications used for ADHD? Note: More than one answer may be correct:
A. Poor appetite.
B. Insomnia.
C. Sleepiness.
D. Agitation.
19. A patient at a mental health clinic is taking Haldol (haloperidol) for treatment of schizophrenia. She calls the clinic to report abnormal movements of her face and tongue. The nurse concludes that the patient is experiencing which of the following symptoms:
A. Co-morbid depression.
B. Psychotic hallucinations.
C. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia.
D. Tardive dyskinesia.
20. A patient with newly diagnosed diabetes mellitus is learning to recognize the symptoms of hypoglycemia. Which of the following symptoms is indicative of hypoglycemia?
A. Polydipsia.
B. Confusion.
C. Blurred vision.
D. Polyphagia.
Answer Key
1. Answer: C
Toddlers typically learn bowel control before bladder control, with boys often taking longer to complete toilet training than girls. Many children are not trained until 36 months and this should not cause concern. Later training is rarely caused by psychological factors and is much more commonly related to individual developmental maturity. Reprimanding the child will not speed the process and may be confusing.
2. Answer: C
Babies and toddlers should not fall asleep with bottles containing liquid other than plain water due to the risk of dental decay. Sugars in milk or juice remain in the mouth during sleep and cause caries, even in teeth that have not yet erupted. When water is substituted for milk or juice, babies will often lose interest in the bottle at night.
3. Answer: B
Infants under 6 months may not be able to sleep for long periods because their stomachs are too small to hold adequate nourishment to take them through the night. After 6 months, it may be helpful to let babies put themselves back to sleep after waking during the night, but not prior to 6 months. Infants should always be placed on their backs to sleep. Research has shown a dramatic decrease in sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) with back sleeping. Eye contact and verbal engagement with infants are important to language development. The best diet for infants under 4 months of age is breast milk or infant formula.
4. Answer: A, B, and C
A daily bowel movement is not necessary if the patient is comfortable and the bowels move regularly. Moderate exercise, such as walking, encourages bowel health, as does generous water intake. A diet high in fiber is also helpful. ). Laxatives should be used as a last resort and should not be taken regularly. Over time, laxatives can desensitize the bowel and worsen constipation.
5. Answer: C
Rheumatic fever is caused by an untreated group A B hemolytic Streptococcus infection in the previous 2-6 weeks, confirmed by a positive antistreptolysin O titer. Rheumatic fever is characterized by a red rash over the trunk and extremities as well as fever and other symptoms.
6. Answer: A
Weight gain is an early symptom of congestive heart failure due to accumulation of fluid. When diuretic therapy is inadequate, one would expect an increase in blood pressure, tachypnea, and tachycardia to result.
7. Answer: B
The therapeutic serum level for Dilantin is 10 - 20 mcg/mL. A level of 4 mcg/mL is sub-therapeutic and may be caused by patient non-compliance or increased metabolism of the drug. A leve of 15 mcg/mL is therapeutic. Choices C and D are expressed in mcg/dL, which is the incorrect unit of measurement.
8. Answer: D
Acetaminophen in even modestly large doses can cause serious liver damage that may result in death. Immediate evaluation of liver function is indicated with consideration of N-acetylcysteine administration as an antidote. Tinnitus is associated with aspirin overdose, not acetaminophen. Diarrhea and hypertension are not associated with acetaminophen.
9. Answer: B
Morphine sulfate can suppress respiration and respiratory reflexes, such as cough. Patients should be monitored regularly for these effects to avoid respiratory compromise. Morphine sulfate does not significantly affect urine output, heart rate, or body temperature.
10. Answer: C
Following triage, an x-ray should be performed to rule out fracture. Ice, not heat, should be applied to a recent sports injury. An elastic bandage may be applied and pain medication given once fracture has been excluded.
11. Answer: D
A moderate amount of serous drainage from a recent surgical site is a sign of normal healing. Purulent drainage would indicate the presence of infection. A soiled dressing should be changed to avoid bacterial growth and to examine the appearance of the wound. The surgical site is typically covered by gauze dressings for a minimum of 48-72 hours to ensure that initial healing has begun.
12. Answer: C
Impaired perfusion to the right lower arm as a result of a closed cast may cause neurovascular compromise and severe pain, requiring immediate cast removal. Itching under the cast is common and fairly benign. Neurovascular compromise in the arm would not cause pain in the shoulder, as perfusion there would not be affected. Impaired perfusion would cause the fingers to be cool and pale. Increased warmth would indicate increased blood flow or infection.
13. Answer: A
Physical activity and daily exercise can help to improve movement and decrease pain in osteoarthritis. Joint pain and stiffness are often at their worst during the early morning after several hours of decreased movement. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever, but does not have anti-inflammatory activity. Ibuprofen is a strong anti-inflammatory, but should always be taken with food to avoid GI distress.
14. Answer: D
Alendronate can cause significant gastrointestinal side effects, such as esophageal irritation, so it should not be taken if a patient must stay in supine position. It should be taken upon rising in the morning with 8 ounces of water on an empty stomach to increase absorption. The patient should not eat or drink for 30 minutes after administration and should not lie down. ACE inhibitors are not contraindicated with alendronate and there is no iodine allergy relationship.
15. Answer: C
Prophylactic use of antibiotics is not indicated to prevent Lyme disease. Antibiotics are used only when symptoms develop following a tick bite. Insect repellant should be used on skin and clothing when exposure is anticipated. Clothing should be designed to cover as much exposed area as possible to provide an effective barrier. Close examination of skin and hair can reveal the presence of a tick before a bite occurs.
16. Answer: D
Immunization is available for the prevention of some, but not all, specific diseases. This type of immunity is "acquired" by causing antibodies to form in response to a specific pathogen. Natural immunity is present at birth because the infant acquires maternal antibodies Immunization, like all medication, cannot be risk-free and should be considered based on the risk of the disease in question.
17. Answer: B
The patient may be experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. The most urgent action is to maintain an airway, particularly with visible oral swelling, followed by the administration of epinephrine by subcutaneous injection. The physician will see the patient as soon as possible with the above actions underway. Oral diphenhydramine is indicated for mild allergic reactions and is not appropriate for anaphylaxis.
18. Answer: A, B, and D
ADHD in children is frequently treated with CNS stimulant medications, which increase focus and improve concentration. Children often experience insomnia, agitation, and decreased appetite. Sleepiness is not a side effect of stimulants.
19. Answer: D
Abnormal facial movements and tongue protrusion in a patient taking haloperidol is most likely due to tardive dyskinesia, an adverse reaction to the antipsychotic. Depression may occur along with schizophrenia and would be characterized by such symptoms as loss of affect, appetite and/or sleep changes, and anhedonia. These depressive changes and lack of volition are part of the negative symptoms of schizophrenia. Psychotic hallucinations may be visual or auditory but do not include abnormal movements.
20. Answer: B
Hypoglycemia in diabetes mellitus causes confusion, indicating the need for carbohydrates. Polydipsia, blurred vision, and polyphagia are symptoms of hyperglycemia.